I did try to search for this, but what I found didn't really specifically answer my questions, and was kind of old and possibly outdated. Maybe the discussion needs refreshed anyway.
First, would trying to fix gender issues be considered fixing the English, or changing a choice a developer made? In other words, are we even allowed to do this? Because it's not technically grammatical.
Just as an example, I only recently learned Puerto Rico and it's full of a lot of "his" this and "his" that. I'm not offended over it, and also realize this same issue doesn't necessarily exist in other languages and that no one meant any offense. But, it does sound pretty silly that "Liallan finished placing his colonists." I can certainly try to find a way to fix all these, assuming it's considered "translating."
Based on the assumption I'm allowed, what might it screw up? One of the options is using the neutral "their" and "them." While this is not grammatically correct when referring to a singular specific person, it is commonly acceptable use when trying to avoid gender issues like this. Most discussions I've seen on this seem to find this acceptable. Like "Liallan finished placing their colonists." That also sounds a little silly but can be used as a last resort. Better options are "Liallan finished placing colonists," or sometimes using "a" or "the" can work. (Like "the indigo barrels" rather than "his indigo barrels" works fine.)
So the issue then becomes, if a good way to do it cannot be found and we have to resort to "their," how does that translate? Will people doing translating understand that usage and know how to deal with it? Another option is "his/her" but I don't like that too well and I don't know what that would do to translations either. But I could do that if it were preferred. (Again, I'd rather find something to avoid gender but it doesn't always work.)
First, would trying to fix gender issues be considered fixing the English, or changing a choice a developer made? In other words, are we even allowed to do this? Because it's not technically grammatical.
Just as an example, I only recently learned Puerto Rico and it's full of a lot of "his" this and "his" that. I'm not offended over it, and also realize this same issue doesn't necessarily exist in other languages and that no one meant any offense. But, it does sound pretty silly that "Liallan finished placing his colonists." I can certainly try to find a way to fix all these, assuming it's considered "translating."
Based on the assumption I'm allowed, what might it screw up? One of the options is using the neutral "their" and "them." While this is not grammatically correct when referring to a singular specific person, it is commonly acceptable use when trying to avoid gender issues like this. Most discussions I've seen on this seem to find this acceptable. Like "Liallan finished placing their colonists." That also sounds a little silly but can be used as a last resort. Better options are "Liallan finished placing colonists," or sometimes using "a" or "the" can work. (Like "the indigo barrels" rather than "his indigo barrels" works fine.)
So the issue then becomes, if a good way to do it cannot be found and we have to resort to "their," how does that translate? Will people doing translating understand that usage and know how to deal with it? Another option is "his/her" but I don't like that too well and I don't know what that would do to translations either. But I could do that if it were preferred. (Again, I'd rather find something to avoid gender but it doesn't always work.)