So, here is a full explanation, I got a question about that recently too, so I suppose the 'non logical' things could be depending of playstyle.
The base of the move is that:
Played: All 1 except r1.
B: r1-x-x-x
C: y1-x-x-x.
A clues 1 to C.
B saw that, wonder why A clued 1, and deduces he has r1, so he plays it.
What's the point of it? It protect C's chop by preventing him to discarding since he now has a trash card. If C's chop is y3, it's really good to keep that card around.
This can be a bluff too:
Played: All 1 except r1.
B: g2-x-x-x
C: y1-x-x-x.
A clues 1 to C.
(check my next example for another interpretation)
Then now, if we begin to assume two missing 1s (which was your question):
Played: g1, y1, w1, m1.
B: r1-x-x-x
C: x-x-x-x
D: y1-x-x-x.
A clues 1 to D.
B and C's goal is to make that clue not bomb, that's the reasonning B and C should have for every (non stupid) clue imo (in my opinion).
So B plays.
Then C now need to wonder if D is going to bomb or not. Here the answer is no (D's 1 is known trash), so imo he should not play. (for very experienced player, this could be a 'suboptimal trash bluff' as C, but that's so confusing, I really advise you to not assume it outside of high level table)
[[[There is no doubt about that if B played b2: C can't play the remaining 1s anymore.
There is that other thing where people could assume to always play if that could be a finesse, if they assume finesse has full priority. But the odds of that happening are so low... You need a trash 1 in D, a 1 in B's finesse positon, and a playable in C. (or the two missing 1s in B's slot 1&2)
I assume players don't think like that.
Feel free to argue into that if you want.
Please note take that reasonning would change others things since I belive 'layered finesse' (warning this term is ambigious) would became logical.
So B should assume r1-b1-x-x (if C didn't answer and D didn't play).
But usually this kind of 'layered finesse' isn't a thing in bga. That's why I don't like that interpretation.]]]
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So this was the base. Now you need to know these clues are possible with a 2 (or any number):
Played: r1 and all 2 except r2.
B: r2-x-x-x
C: y2-x-x-x
A clues 2 to C.
Or with color:
Played: g3, m5.
B: b1-x-x-x
C: g1-x-x-x
D: x-x-x-g(5) - g5 was saved with 5 previously
A clues g to C.
Be careful with this one because B could maybe got all remaining copies of g4 if he got something else to do, and if the clue is needed for another reason (double save for C per example).
Now where it can became interresting is with multiples 1s clued:
Played: All 1 except r1.
B: b2-x-x-x
C: y1-1-x-x.
A clues 1 to C.
So here, if r1 is leftmost, B discard, so after B play, C has negative r1 in slot 1.
But the point is, there is a good chance B could assume it was an extraction to C if r1 was rightmost.
If that extraction is impossible (y1-r1-m2-x with m2 played), why A did that clue? Reclue of 1? I never saw that even if that's logical.
If that extraction is suboptimal (y1-r1-r3-x), why A didn't clued red? Here logically it should ask B to play his slot 1 as a 'suboptimal trash bluff'
If C's hand is r1-r1-x-x, yeah that make sense. But again Bob could clue red in some cases.
But... That is just so much complicated to see these exceptions which are rare.
I assume that players always assume all clued card are trash.
And for finish, let's talk about finesse-trash bluff with reverse or not;
Played: All 1 except r1.
B: x-x-x-x
C: r1-x-x-x
D: y1-x-x-x.
A clues 1 to D.
or:
Played: All 1 except r1.
B: x-x-x-x
C: y1-x-x-x
D: r1-x-x-x.
A clues 1 to C.
This is a pretty rare spot. I believe A would do that mainly only if B got something else to do, which then make the delay of B has really few cost.
What if B got nothing to do.
I assume it's two valid clue, and B should discard. But, I would not do that clue out of tables with very experienced player.
And I think I covered all cases. Tell me if I forgot one.